Please refer to Sample Paper Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Set B with solutions provided below. We have provided CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science as per the latest paper pattern and examination guidelines for Standard 10 Social Science issued by CBSE for the current academic year. The below provided Sample Guess paper will help you to practice and understand what type of questions can be expected in the Class 10 Social Science exam.

CBSE Sample Paper Class 10 Social Science for Term 1 Set B

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)

1. Which of the following major issue of conservative regime 1815 was criticised by the Liberal nationalists?
(a) Preservation of Private Property
(b) Abolition of Aristocratic privileges
(c) Censorship laws to control the Press
(d) Preservation of the Church

2. Kaiser William-I belonged to which of the following countries?
(a) Austria
(b) Denmark
(c) Prussia
(d) France

3. Which among the following factors strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe? Identify from the given options.
(a) Modern army
(b) Abolition of feudalism and serfdom
(c) Efficient bureaucracy
(d) All of these

4. Why did women and non-propertied men organise opposition movements throughout the 18th and early 19th century?
(a) Demanding for property
(b) Demanding equal political rights
(c) Demanding membership in Jacobian club
(d) Demanding equal distribution of wealth

5. Who led the Protest movement against the Protestants in Ireland?
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini
(b) Wolfe Tone
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(d) Count Camillo Cavour

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in
(a) Groundnut- Punjab
(b) Jute- Maharashtra
(c) Cotton- Gujarat
(d) Sugarcane- Assam

7. ………… is recognised as a powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid varieties of seeds.
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Globalisations

8. Which among the following statement is true regarding renewable resources?
(a) Renewable resources are replenished by the nature over a period of time.
(b) Renewable resources are available only in the developed nations.
(c) Renewable resources are in abundance.
(d) Renewable resources are fixed and they are bound to get exhausted.

9. Who was declared as a spiritual heir of Gandhiji?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Vinoba Bhave
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

10. Which oil seeds can be grown both in Rabi and Kharif Seasons?
(a) Castor seeds
(b) Soybean
(c) Sesamum
(d) Cotton seeds

11. Which among the following was not a demand of Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Regional Autonomy
(b) Reservation of seats in the Parliament
(c) Equality of opportunity in jobs
(d) Recognition of Tamil as an official language

12. Why did the Dutch speaking community resent the French speaking community?
(a) They were in minority.
(b) French community was different in terms of religious practices.
(c) They were the majority community.
(d) French community was in minority but it still enjoyed all the benefits for their welfare despite being rich.

13. Who elects the members of the Gram Panchayat?
(a) The Presiding officer
(b) The Gram Panchayat
(c) The Gram Sabha
(d) The Nyaya Panchayat

14. When power is divided between higher and lower levels of government, then it is known as what?
(a) Horizontal division of power sharing
(b) Vertical division of power sharing
(c) Unitary division of power sharing
(d) None of the above

15. Which of the following was the main reason responsible for the killing of thousands of people in Sri Lanka? Identify from the given options.
(a) Cold War between Sinhala and Tamil speaking population.
(b) Civil War between Sinhala and Tamil speaking population.
(c) Cultural riots between Sinhala and Tamil Speaking population
(d) None of the above

16. Which among the following countries is an example of federal form of government?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Egypt
(c) Australia
(d) England

17. Which of the following subjects falls under the Concurrent List?
(a) Defense
(b) Agriculture
(c) Currency
(d) Marriage

18. Which among the following is a developmental goal for the landless rural labourer?
(a) To educate their children
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) To get basic facilities
(d) None of the above

19. Which of the following statement is correct about developmental goals?
(a) They are the same for all the citizens of a country.
(b) These goals do not matter to the citizens.
(c) They are different and sometimes even contradictory for different groups and people.
(d) There are no developmental goals.

20. The Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on which of the following factors?
(a) National Income
(b) Public Distribution system
(c) Per-capita Income
(d) Gross Domestic Product

21. Which of the following services rise rapidly?
(a) Banking and Trade
(b) Software companies
(c) Information and Communication Technology
(d) Education

22. In spite of low income, which sector gives employment to huge labour force in India?
(a) Primary
(b) Public
(c) Organised
(d) Secondary

23. There are thousands of casual workers in the service sector in urban areas who search for daily employment. They are employed as painters, plumbers, repair persons and other odd jobs. Many of them don’t find work every day. The problem of underemployment occurs …………… .
(a) when people are not willing to work.
(b) when people are working slowly.
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.
(d) when people are not paid for their jobs.

24. Which of the following economic activity does not come under the Primary sector?
(a) Fishing
(b) Farming
(c) Banking
(d) Mining

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)

25. Followng image shows new laws that were made in Russia in 2005 giving powers to its President. During the same time the US President visited Russia.
Study the given picture and answer the following question.

Which among the following statements appropriately describes the given picture?
(a) Democracy can help in division of powers.
(b) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.
(c) Despotic rulers do not leave much scope for power sharing.
(d) Concentration of powers in one hand helps to make quick decisions.

26. Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct?
(i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by a member of the royal family.
(iii) A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws for all citisens.
(iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in France.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

27. Who among the following was described as the most dangerous enemy of social order by Duke Metternich?
(a) Louis Philippe
(b) Karol Kurpinski
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) Garibaldi

28. On which of the following subjects can both the Union as well as the State governments make laws?
(a) Communications
(b) Defense
(c) Trade Unions
(d) Agriculture

29. Identify the crop with the help of given clues
• It is a tropical as well as a sub-tropical crop.
• It grows well in hot and humid climate.
• A temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75cm and 100cm.
(a) Oil seeds
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Tea
(d) Coffee

30. Which is the main food crop of the Eastern and Southern part of India?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Sugarcane

31. Which among the following is correct about the Indian Federal System?
(i) The Parliament cannot make changes to the power-sharing arrangement.
(ii) It is not easy to make changes to the power sharing arrangement.
(iii) It has to be ratified by the Legislatures of at least half of the total states.
(iv) Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of the Parliament with at least two-thirds majority.
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of these

32. Identify the leading figure of ‘conservatism’ in Europe from the given options.
(a) Johann Gottfried Herder
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Lord Byron
(d) Duke Metternich

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) India is a holding together Federation.
Reason (R) All the states have equal powers and are strong as Union Government.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following.

Choose the correct answer from the given options:
(a) A → 2, B → 4, C → 1, D → 3
(b) A → 3, B → 2, C → 4, D → 1
(c) A → 4, B → 3, C → 2, D → 1
(d) A → 1, B → 3, C → 2, D → 4

35.The French Revolutionaries declared that the mission and destiny of the French nation was ………… . Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) to conquer the people of Europe
(b) to liberate the people of Europe from despotism
(c) to strengthen absolute monarchies in all the countries of Europe
(d) to propagate the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in every part of the world

36. The Constitution of India divided the powers among which of the following?
(a) Between centre and states in three lists.
(b) Between centre and states in two lists.
(c) Listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.
(d) Specified the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre.

37. Which of the following federal principles are found in the Indian federation?
(i) Equal representation of states in the Second House of Parliament.
(ii) Bicameral Legislature at federal level.
(iii) Double citizenship.
(iv) Independent and Impartial judiciary.
Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

38. Mark the correct features of ‘Holding Together Federation’ from the given options.
(a) State exercise equal powers with the Union.
(b) Central government is more powerful than the states.
(c) The jurisdictions of the respective levels of the government are not mentioned in the Constitution.
(d) State tends to be more powerful than the central government.

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R) They promote equality among classes.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Identify the incorrect option.
(a) Disguised unemployment – More people working than actually needed
(b) Unemployment – Not getting jobs at a particular time of the year
(c) Underemployed – Not employed according to skill or education
(d) Labour effort- the hard work done by a labour to earn income

41. Study the following table and answer the question that follows.

For how many years will the reserves of crude oil last in Middle East, if they continue extracting it at the present rate?
(a) 50 years
(b) 100 years
(c) 70 years
(d) 60 years

42. Which of the following examples does not fall under unorganised sector?
(a) A farmer irrigating his field.
(b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
(c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient.
(d) A handloom weaver working on a loom in her house.

43. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to Public Sector?
(a) Government owns the asset.
(b) Big companies own the asset.
(c) A group of people owns the asset.
(d) All of these

44. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence against the Greeks which began in 1831.
Reason (R) Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

45. Which one among the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector?
(a) Educated and trained professionals
(b) Repair persons and daily wage-earners
(c) People in defense services
(d) People working in health centers and hospitals

46. How would you calculate Body Mass Index?
(a) Dividing the weight by the square of the height.
(b) Dividing the height by weight.
(c) Dividing the weight by height.
(d) Adding height to the weight of the person.

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic. They did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and sought to curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments. Most of them imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, books, plays and songs and reflected the ideas of liberty and freedom associatedwith the French Revolution. Thememory of the French Revolution nonetheless continued to inspire liberals. One of the major issues taken up by the liberal-nationalists, who criticised the new conservative order, was freedom of the press.

47. Why all the new regimes set up in 1815, were autocratic in nature? Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) They did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
(b) They imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, plays, songs, etc.
(c) They curbed activities which questioned their legitimacy.
(d) All of the above

48. Repression of liberal revolutionaries after 1815 in Europe led to what? Identify the correct option from the following.
(i) Armies being trained by the revolutionaries.
(ii) All revolutionaries were trained to overthrow Monarchy.
(iii) Secret societies were formed in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)

49. Fill in the blank by choosing appropriate option.
Conservatives did not believe in establishing and preserving ………… .
(a) the Monarchy
(b) the Democracy
(c) social hierarchies
(d) traditional institutions of state

50. Which of the following was not a demand of the liberals? Identify from the given options.
(a) Representative Government
(b) Autocratic Government
(c) Freedom of Markets
(d) Inviolability of Private property

51. Of what opinion Conservatives believed in? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) Monarchies were dangerous for the nation-state.
(b) Feudalism should be restored.
(c) Monarchy and church should be preserved.
(d) Pre-revolution administration should be re-established.

52. To which of the following class liberal-nationalists belonged to? Identify from the given options.
(a) Artisans
(b) Elite class
(c) Educated middle class Elite
(d) Lower middle class

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

Potential Resources – Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised. For example, the Western parts of India particularly Rajasthan and Gujarat have enormous potential for the development of wind and solar energy, but so far these have not been developed properly.

Developed Resources – Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation. The development of resources depends on technology and level of their feasibility.

Stock Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to access these, are included among stock. For example, water is a compound of two gases; hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen can be used as a rich source of energy. But we do not have advanced technical ‘know-how’ to use it for this purpose. Hence, it can be considered as stock.

53. Potential and development resources are categories under which type of resources?
(a) On the basis of origin
(b) On the basis of exhaustibility
(c) On the basis of ownership
(d) On the basis of status of development

54. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rajasthan and Gujarat have enormous potential for the development of wind and solar energy.
Reason (R) Both the states have good percentage of barren land.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

55. If a person knows about the presence of a resource in abundance at a place but is not able to harness it due to lack of technical know-how or any other problem then that resource would be known as which of the following resources?
(a) Abiotic resource
(b) International resource
(c) Community owned resource
(d) Stock resource

56. There are some regions of India where availability of resources is sufficient, but in some regions, there are acute shortage of important resources. Identify which of the following region is deficient in water resources.
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Ladakh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

57. Coal, natural gas, petroleum, water etc are examples of which type of given resources? Identify from the given options
(a) Potential resources
(b) Community owned resources
(c) Developed resources
(d) Biotic resources

58. Which are the main factors that determine creation of a resource? Identify the correct options.
(a) Nature and technology
(b) Nature and human beings
(c) Nature, human beings and technology
(d) Technology and human beings

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.

59. Identify the type of soil marked as ‘A’ and choose the correct option.
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Laterite soil

60. In the given map a crop growing area/region has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the crop and choose the correct option.
(a) Tea
(b) Rubber
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Coffee